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ASSISTANT CENTRAL INTELLIGENCE OFFICER-GRADE-II/EXECUTIVE

September 22, 2025 ASSISTANT CENTRAL INTELLIGENCE OFFICER-GRADE-II/EXECUTIVE, IB ACIO Executive 2025 Application Form

Application Seq No	IBACIO
Roll Number	XXXXXX
Participant Name	XXXXXX
Test Center Name	TCS Gito Bitan
Test Date	17/09/2025
Test Time	3:00 PM - 4:00 PM
Post Name	ASSISTANT CENTRAL INTELLIGENCE OFFICER-GRADE-II/EXECUTIVE

Section : Current Affairs

Q.1	In which sports discipline was Annu Rani honoured with the Arjuna Award 2024?

Ans	1. Archery
	2. Swimming
	3. Weightlifting
	4. Athletics

Q.2	In September 2024, what was R Vithya Ramraj’s new meet record time in the 400 m hurdles, breaking PT Usha's 39-year-old record?

Ans	1. 57.10 seconds
	2. 58.05 seconds
	3. 55.60 seconds
	4. 56.23 seconds

Q.3	Which state showed the highest increase in forest cover (excluding tree cover) as per the India State of Forest Report 2023?

Ans	1. Madhya Pradesh
	2. Mizoram
	3. Nagaland
	4. Odisha

Q.4	Which of the following countries partnered with India for the maritime exercise AIKEYME in 2025?

Ans	1. Tanzania
	2. Vietnam
	3. Maldives
	4. Indonesia

Q.5	What was India’s ranking in the 2024 Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI)?

Ans	1. 93
	2. 99
	3. 89
	4. 96

Q.6	Which organisation’s R&D wing, NETRA, developed an indigenous catalyst for the hydrogenation of CO₂ to methanol in collaboration with the Indian Institute of Petroleum (IIP), Dehradun, in October 2024?

Ans	1. ISRO
	2. DRDO
	3. SAIL
	4. NTPC

Q.7	Which political party won the maximum number of seats after the Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP), in Maharashtra Assembly Elections 2024?

Ans	1. Shiv Sena (Uddhav Balasaheb Thackeray) - SHSUBT
	2. Nationalist Congress Party - NCP
	3. Shiv Sena - SHS
	4. Indian National Congress - INC

Q.8	Which organisation fabricated the VIKRAM3201 processor using 180nm CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) technology in 2025?

Ans	1. Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL), Chandigarh
	2. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
	3. Bharat Electronics Limited
	4. Indian Institute of Science (IISc)

Q.9	'Perfection', a satire on modern life, is the first English-translated novel of which Italian author?

Ans	1. Vincenzo Latronico
	2. Saou Ichikawa
	3. Vincent Delecroix
	4. Dahlia de la Cerda

Q.10	Who among the following was awarded with the Col. C. K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award in the Men's category in 2025?

Ans	1. Sunil Gavaskar
	2. Rahul Dravid
	3. Sachin Tendulkar
	4. Sourav Ganguly

Q.11	According to the Union Budget 2025–26, what is the enhanced loan limit under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme through KCC?

Ans	1. ₹6 lakh
	2. ₹5 lakh
	3. ₹3 lakh
	4. ₹4 lakh

Q.12	Former Delhi Chief Minister Atishi won from which assembly constituency in February 2025 elections?

Ans	1. Deoli
	2. Kondli
	3. Kalkaji
	4. Kirari

Q.13	Released in October 2024, the book ‘Speaking with Nature: The Origins of Indian Environmentalism’, was authored by ________________.

Ans	1. Shaktikantha Das
	2. Piyush Goyal
	3. Ramachandra Guha
	4. Narendra Modi

Q.14	Operation Brahma, initiated by India in 2025, was a disaster-relief operation in response to an earthquake in which country?

Ans	1. Bangladesh
	2. Myanmar
	3. Nepal
	4. Indonesia

Q.15	As per the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, with an objective of making quality generic medicines available at affordable prices to all, the number of Jan Aushadhi Kendras under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) crossed which mark on 28 February 2025?

Ans	1. 10,000
	2. 15,000
	3. 11,000
	4. 13,000

Q.16	How many riverine dolphins were estimated to be present across the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus River systems in India according to the country’s first-ever detailed dolphin population survey released in March 2025?

Ans	1. 6,327
	2. 6,200
	3. 6,227
	4. 6,687

Q.17	Who compiled the book 'I AM' launched in February 2025?

Ans	1. Gopichand P Hinduja
	2. Sachchidanand Joshi
	3. Jagdeep Dhankhar
	4. Ram Nath Kovind

Q.18	Which state was the venue of the 39^th Junior National Athletics Championships?

Ans	1. Tamil Nadu
	2. Assam
	3. Manipur
	4. Odisha

Q.19	Which Indian state launched its inaugural wine production unit in 2024?

Ans	1. Uttarakhand
	2. Arunachal Pradesh
	3. Meghalaya
	4. Nagaland

Q.20	India became the fourth country to achieve which technological feat with SpaDeX?

Ans	1. Human spaceflight
	2. Mars landing
	3. Space docking
	4. Space tourism

Section : General Studies

Q.1	What is the primary geological composition of the Lakshadweep and Minicoy Islands?

Ans	1. Volcanic rocks
	2. Coral deposits
	3. Granite and basalt
	4. Sandstone and shale

Q.2	The Government of India formally proposed the Second Green Revolution in which year?

Ans	1. 2002
	2. 2000
	3. 2005
	4. 1996

Q.3	What was India's reform model described as, in contrast to the 'shock therapy' of Eastern Europe?

Ans	1. Direct monetisation route
	2. Keynesian shortfall correction
	3. Nehruvian mixed model
	4. Gradualist stabilisation

Q.4	The larger Harappan cities were built according to precise plans and were separated in how many distinct parts?

Ans	1. Five
	2. Two
	3. Four
	4. Three

Q.5	Which of the following statements about the influence of physiography on the climate of India are correct? 1. Physiography of India significantly influences climatic factors like temperature, rainfall, wind direction, and pressure. 2. Higher altitudes experience warmer climates regardless of location, including Peninsular India. 3. Western Ghats cause heavy rainfall on the windward side due to the perpendicular strike of the south-west monsoon winds from the Bay of Bengal. 4. Leeward side of the Western Ghats lies in the rain-shadow zone and remains comparatively dry.

Ans	1. 1 and 2 only
	2. 1, 2, and 3 only
	3. 1 and 4 only
	4. 3 and 4 only

Q.6	The Sun Temple at Konark, though earlier in origin, saw major medieval renovations under:

Ans	1. Narasimhadeva I
	2. Raja Raja Chola I
	3. Bukka Raya
	4. Harsha

Q.7	What was the immediate political consequence of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in 1919? .

Ans	1. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest.
	2. The Rowlatt Act was repealed immediately by the British government.
	3. The Indian National Congress boycotted the Simon Commission.
	4. Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement.

Q.8	What is the implication of Article 239AA in the context of the National Capital Territory of Delhi?

Ans	1. Grants full statehood rights to Delhi
	2. Provides Legislative Assembly for Delhi
	3. Grants full control over police to Delhi government
	4. Merged Delhi Assembly with Indian Parliament

Q.9	Which foreign ambassador wrote 'Indica', providing detailed accounts of the Mauryan court?

Ans	1. Deimachus
	2. Megasthenes
	3. Dionysius
	4. Fa-Hien

Q.10	What is the climatic factor that favours the location of cotton mills in Mumbai?

Ans	1. High rainfall and flooding
	2. High temperature and low humidity
	3. Mild climate with enough moisture in the air
	4. Extreme temperature fluctuations

Q.11	As of 2021, what is India’s estimated GDP, marking its growth since the reforms of 1991?

Ans	1. $3.1 trillion
	2. $2 trillion
	3. $5 trillion
	4. $1 trillion

Q.12	Which Amendment to the Constitution added Article 39A, ensuring free legal aid to the poor?

Ans	1. 44^th Amendment Act, 1978
	2. 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976
	3. 97^th Amendment Act, 2011
	4. 86^th Amendment Act, 2002

Q.13	Which of the following statements regarding National Parks and Biodiversity-related conservation in India are correct? 1. A State Government may declare an area as a National Park, but boundary changes need the National Board for Wildlife’s recommendation. 2. According to IUCN (1969), National Parks should not allow any form of human visitation. 3. The Central Government may notify Biodiversity Heritage Sites in consultation with local bodies. 4. In Biosphere Reserves, tourism is prohibited in the core zone but allowed in buffer and transition zones.

Ans	1. 1, 2 , 3 and 4
	2. 2 only
	3. 1 and 3 only
	4. 1 and 4 only

Q.14	Who was the first Mauryan king to maintain a standing army?

Ans	1. Dasharatha
	2. Chandragupta Maurya
	3. Ashoka
	4. Bindusara

Q.15	The Peninsular Plateau of India is one of the oldest landmasses on Earth and was once part of the ancient supercontinent known as _________.

Ans	1. Laurasia
	2. Eurasia
	3. Gondwanaland
	4. Angaraland

Q.16	Which of the following is a tool used by the RBI to control inflation through monetary policy?

Ans	1. Fiscal deficit
	2. Subsidy allocation
	3. Income tax rate
	4. Reverse repo rate

Q.17	Which of the following is NOT a Constitutional Body?

Ans	1. National Green Tribunal
	2. Union Public Service Commission
	3. State Public Service Commission
	4. Finance Commission

Q.18	What powers does the Parliament have over Union Territories, under Article 241(1)?

Ans	1. To merge with states
	2. To create or declare a High Court
	3. To grant statehood
	4. To appoint Governor

Q.19	What is the primary objective of Panchayati Raj Institutions?

Ans	1. Rural governance and development
	2. Economic liberalisation
	3. Urban development
	4. Judicial reforms

Q.20	Who became the principal of the Sanskrit College in 1851 and opened its gates to non-Brahmin students?

Ans	1. Swami Vivekananda
	2. Bipin Chandra Pal
	3. Dayanand Saraswati
	4. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Section : Numerical Aptitude

Q.1	$begin mathsize 12px style The space value space of space left parenthesis a to the power of p right parenthesis to the power of fraction numerator 1 over denominator p squared space minus space p space plus space 1 end fraction end exponent space cross times space left parenthesis a to the power of negative p end exponent right parenthesis to the power of fraction numerator 1 over denominator p squared space plus space p space plus space 1 end fraction end exponent space cross times space left parenthesis a to the power of negative 2 p end exponent right parenthesis to the power of fraction numerator 1 over denominator p to the power of 4 space plus space p squared space plus space 1 end fraction end exponent space is colon end style$

Ans	1. a²
	2. a
	3. $begin mathsize 12px style 1 over a end style$
	4. 1

Q.2	The 7-digit number 51A808B is divisible by 24. What is the minimum value of (A + B)?

Ans	1. 5
	2. 2
	3. 3
	4. 6

Q.3	What is the average speed of a truck that covers half the distance with a speed of 42 km/hr and the other half with a speed of 56 km/hr?

Ans	1. 45 km/hr
	2. 50 km/hr
	3. 44 km/hr
	4. 48 km/hr

Q.4	5 chairs and 18 tables cost ₹9,300 and 3 chairs and 18 tables cost ₹7,200. What is the cost of 5 chairs and 16 tables?

Ans	1. ₹8,851
	2. ₹8,850
	3. ₹8,847
	4. ₹8,853

Q.5	A can beat B in a race of 800 m by 72 m or 12 seconds. Find the speed of A (in km/hr, rounded off to two decimal places).

Ans	1. 23.74
	2. 26.49
	3. 20.98
	4. 22.31

Q.6	A person borrows ₹28,400 at 15% compound interest per year, compounded annually. At the end of every year, he pays ₹9,100 as part payment. How much does he still owe after two such instalments?

Ans	1. ₹17,817
	2. ₹17,973
	3. ₹17,994
	4. ₹17,795

Q.7	The number of peacocks in a bird sanctuary was P in the year 2000. The number decreased by 10% in the next decade and increased by 50% in the decade after that. If the difference between the number of peacocks in the years 2020 and 2000 is 5250, and it increased by 36% in the next half decade, then what is the number of peacocks in the year 2025?

Ans	1. 25,450
	2. 23,850
	3. 22,740
	4. 27,540

Q.8	The semi perimeter of the rectangular wall of a room is (3x − 7y + 5) m, and its height is (2x + y) m. Find the area of four walls of the room, if x = 3 and y = −2.

Ans	1. 224 m²
	2. 135 m²
	3. 264 m²
	4. 168 m²

Q.9	A man has invested ₹54,500 at a rate of 6% per annum simple interest for 3 years. Find the amount (in ₹) that he will receive after 3 years.

Ans	1. 65,310
	2. 64,310
	3. 10,810
	4. 9,810

Q.10	There are three containers, X, Y and Z, each having a solution of concentrated juice, sugar solution and water. The concentrated juice is 5% in each whereas the sugar solution is 70%, 60% and 50%, respectively and the rest is water. Solutions in X, Y and Z are mixed together in a bigger drum. Ten litres are drawn from the drum and poured in to a bucket to which 2 litres water is added. Find the percentage of sugar solution in the bucket .

Ans	1. $33 1 third percent sign$
	2. $44 percent sign$
	3. $57 3 over 4 percent sign$
	4. $50 percent sign$

Q.11	P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 30 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern with water in 80 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill half of the cistern with water?

Ans	1. 25
	2. 49
	3. 24
	4. 48

Q.12	Three partners invested in a business in the ratio 8 : 4 : 6. They invested their capitals for 8 months, 3 months and 6 months, respectively. What was the ratio of their profits?

Ans	1. 16 : 3 : 9
	2. 14 : 3 : 9
	3. 17 : 3 : 9
	4. 19 : 3 : 9

Q.13	The average of the squares of the first 150 natural numbers is: (Rounded off to two decimal places.)

Ans	1. 7574.17
	2. 7575.17
	3. 7576.67
	4. 7576.17

Q.14	The cost price of an article is ₹620, and its marked price is ₹800. If the seller offers a 7% discount on the marked price, what will be his profit percentage?

Ans	1. 20%
	2. 18%
	3. 23%
	4. 21%

Q.15	I bought two dresss for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 14% and the second at a gain of 10%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹) of the first dress.

Ans	1. 520
	2. 500
	3. 484
	4. 524

Q.16	A man receives ₹1,766 per month as salary. He saves 50% of his salary every month. His expenditure per month is:

Ans	1. ₹883
	2. ₹934
	3. ₹804
	4. ₹876

Q.17	Two buses leave a station at the same time. One bus returns to the station every 20 minutes, and the other returns every 30 minutes. After how many minutes will both buses return to the station together?

Ans	1. 45 minutes
	2. 90 minutes
	3. 60 minutes
	4. 30 minutes

Q.18	Ajay, Vijay and Sujay can paint a room in 6 hours, 3 hours and 2 hours, respectively. Ajay works in the 1^st hour, Ajay and Vijay in the 2^nd hour and, after 2 hours, all the three work together until the work is completed. What part of the total work is completed by Vijay alone?

Ans	1. $begin mathsize 12px style 6 over 7 end style$
	2. $begin mathsize 12px style 4 over 9 end style$
	3. $begin mathsize 12px style 2 over 3 end style$
	4. $begin mathsize 12px style 3 over 5 end style$

Q.19	An article is sold at a discount of 35%, and an additional discount of 40% is allowed on cash payment. If a customer purchased the article by paying ₹4,480 in cash, the marked price (in ₹, rounded to two decimal places) of the article was:

Ans	1. 11,487.18
	2. 14,187.32
	3. 17,871.53
	4. 17,178.66

Q.20	The sum of the present ages of A, B and C is 210 years. 7 years ago from now, the ratio of their ages was 10 : 11 : 6. What is the present age of C (in years)?

Ans	1. 51
	2. 50
	3. 49
	4. 47

Section : Reasoning or Logical Aptitude

Q.1	What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 165 148 132 117 103 ?

Ans	1. 82
	2. 68
	3. 75
	4. 90

Q.2	In this question, two statements I and II have been given. These statements may be independent causes or effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and select the correct option. Statements: I. The government launched a new health awareness campaign across the country. II. More people have started opting for regular health check-ups.

Ans	1. Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its possible effect.
	2. Both Statements I and II are effects of a common cause.
	3. Both Statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
	4. Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its possible effect.

Q.3	Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All plates are earrings. All earrings are stones. All stones are combs. Conclusions: (I): All plates are combs. (II): Some combs are earrings.

Ans	1. Only conclusion (I) follows
	2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
	3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
	4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.4	Seven boxes, F, G, H, I, L, M and N, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept between I and M. Only N is kept above L. No box is kept below M. F is kept at some place below H but at some place above G. Which box is kept third above G?

Ans	1. F
	2. H
	3. I
	4. M

Q.5	In a certain code language, ‘FILE’ is coded as ‘9543’ and ‘LIFT’ is coded as ‘4253’. How is ‘T’ coded in that language?

Ans	1. 2
	2. 4
	3. 3
	4. 5

Q.6	C, D, E, K, L and M live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6. C lives on the topmost floor. Only three people live between C and L. M lives on a floor below L. K lives on an even numbered floor. D lives on an odd numbered floor but not on floor number 5. How many people live between E and L?

Ans	1. Four
	2. Two
	3. Three
	4. One

Q.7	If a water source is placed along X-Y, as shown in the given figure, which of the given options will be the water reflection of the given figure?

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.8	In a certain code language, ‘DROP’ is coded as ‘3275’ and ‘OILY’ is coded as ‘4136’. What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?

Ans	1. 4
	2. 3
	3. 6
	4. 5

Q.9	Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

Ans	1. FI-WE
	2. IB-ZH
	3. EX-VD
	4. HA-YG

Q.10	What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged? 184 + 8 × 15 − 3 ÷ 26 = ?

Ans	1. 17
	2. 4
	3. 23
	4. 14

Q.11	In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the son of B’, A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’. How is C related to M if ‘C x V – R ÷ N + M’?

Ans	1. Brother`s daughter
	2. Husband`s brother`s daughter
	3. Brother`s wife
	4. Husband`s brother`s wife

Q.12	Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 2, 5, 22 5, 9, 92

Ans	1. 9, 4, 23
	2. 12, 2, 50
	3. 1, 4, 34
	4. 10, 5, 34

Q.13	What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 445 418 457 430 469 ?

Ans	1. 498
	2. 442
	3. 477
	4. 428

Q.14	In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’ ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’ ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ Based on the above, how is C related to M if ‘C+V÷R–N×M’?

Ans	1. Brother
	2. Father
	3. Wife's father
	4. Wife's brother

Q.15	Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.16	Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

Ans	1. PM - IF
	2. LI - EA
	3. VS - OL
	4. TQ - MJ

Q.17	Mr. Lakhhan starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn, drives 18 km, turns right and drives 32 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km, turns right and drives 8 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 18 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 17 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)

Ans	1. 7 km to the west
	2. 8 km to the north
	3. 18 km to the south
	4. 7 km to the east

Q.18	A question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and select the most appropriate answer. Six people, N, P, T, U, X, and Z are sitting in a row, facing the north. How many people sit to the right of U? (I) Exactly three people sit between P and N. Z sits to the immediate left of N. (II) Only two people sit to the left of T. U sits to the immediate left of T.

Ans	1. Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not
	2. Both statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question
	3. Both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) are sufficient to answer the question
	4. Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not

Q.19	A question is followed by two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and select the most appropriate answer. Five boxes A, D, F, L, and R are of different weights. How many boxes are heavier than F? (I) Only A is lighter than L. Only R is heavier than F. (II) Exactly two boxes are heavier than D. A is lighter than R.

Ans	1. Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not
	2. Both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) are sufficient to answer the question
	3. Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not
	4. Both statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question

Q.20	Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only 2 people sit to the left of C. Only 3 people sit between F and D, neither of whom sits on the extreme ends. A sits immediately to the right of G. E sits immediately to the left of F. How many people sit to the right of D?

Ans	1. 4
	2. 1
	3. 2
	4. 3

Section : English

Q.1	Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted phrase in the following sentence. He was caught in (a/an) extremely confusing, complicated or difficult situation and didn’t know how to escape it. Miscommunication and assumptions had only made things worse, and every attempt to fix one problem seemed to create two more.

Ans	1. labyrinth
	2. imbroglio
	3. quandary
	4. dilemma

Q.2	Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. By arraying elements in rows and columns, placing like substances in vertical groups, Mendeleyev accurately predicted that other elements would eventually be discovered. B. That insight led him to outline the periodic table still in use today. C. Charting the elements for a textbook in the late 1860’s Russian chemist Dmitry Mendeleyev noticed similarities in groups of elements based on their atomic weight: Each element resembled the eighth to follow it. D. Later, the chart was recognised to reflect the proton count in an atom’s nucleus - an elephant’s atomic number. E. It contains 118 elements, as many as 90 of which occur naturally.

Ans	1. A, C, B, E, D
	2. D, A, B, E, C
	3. E, D, C, B, A
	4. C, B, A, D, E

Q.3	Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. Though shy, I was always punctual and regular in my school attendance. B. In fact, school was a place of duty, not delight. C. Moreover, I had few friends and often spent time by myself. D. I disliked physical games and preferred solitude.

Ans	1. CADB
	2. ABDC
	3. DCBA
	4. ADCB

Q.4	Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank. If no article is needed, select 'No article required'. He was ______ Einstein of the class.

Ans	1. No article required
	2. an
	3. the
	4. a

Q.5	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence. The lack of reliable weather forecasting threw the rescue operations into turmoil during the disaster.

Ans	1. Resistance
	2. Quiet
	3. Turbulence
	4. Fuss

Q.6	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence. The speech was intentionally vague, lacking clear arguments or conclusions.

Ans	1. Critical
	2. Blunt
	3. Definite
	4. Formal

Q.7	Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb. You cannot make an omelette without breaking eggs.

Ans	1. It is always a good idea to be prepared for a big mess after a real feast.
	2. It is a messy affair to aspire to make a good English omlette.
	3. It is hard to achieve important things without some unpleasantness.
	4. It is terribly difficult to avoid mess when you want to prepare something special.

Q.8	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The Voyager 1 mission stands as a testament to human ingenuity and ________________, pushing the boundaries of our understanding of the cosmos and inspiring generations to come.

Ans	1. bliss
	2. curiosity
	3. tranquil
	4. captivity

Q.9	Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence and select the option that rectifies it. Russians lay claim to their vodka, Americans to their fast-food hegemony and semi-automatic brovado, while the Japanese enshrine karoshi—the morbid credo of labouring unto death; for every self-regarding nation cultivates a self-destructive proclivity, a culturally sanctified vice embraced with defiant fervor, as if to affirm that national identity, however perilous, is a conviction worth perishing for in the face of foreign derision.

Ans	1. bravado
	2. dericion
	3. crado
	4. procliviety

Q.10	Select the most appropriate verb to fill in the blank. In his childhood, Gandhi often ___ the teachings of mythological figures into personal vows of truth and sacrifice.

Ans	1. galloped
	2. internalised
	3. shivered
	4. assembled

Q.11	What does the idiom ‘hit a nerve’ mean?

Ans	1. To physically injure someone
	2. To provoke a reaction by referring to a sensitive topic
	3. To ignore someone
	4. To successfully complete a difficult task without any problems

Q.12	Select the option that rectifies the spelling error in the underlined word. There was a long discussion about the liason between the two departments.

Ans	1. liasson
	2. liaison
	3. liasion
	4. liasen

Q.13	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The hikers set up their tents ___________ the clearing, surrounded by the dense forest.

Ans	1. on
	2. at
	3. in
	4. around

Q.14	Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the highlighted segment in the given paragraph. When confronted with injustice, Gandhi didn’t merely rely on law or tradition. Gandhi’s decision was shaped by his strong sense of right and wrong, not by convenience.

Ans	1. aversion
	2. enormity
	3. conscience
	4. disposition

Q.15	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The players are accorded _______ aura that outshines the limelight of movie stars.

Ans	1. the
	2. No article required
	3. a
	4. an

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage and answer questions that follow. “The incident left an indelible impression upon my mind. I had arrived late for gymnastics owing to a misjudgment of time, yet my explanation was summarily dismissed. The teacher, presuming dishonesty, imposed a fine. It was not the penalty that distressed me, but the imputation of falsehood. I wept — not out of guilt, but out of anguish that my integrity had been questioned in front of my peers. That moment awakened in me a deeper realisation: that one who walks the path of truth must also be vigilant in conduct, lest even innocent negligence be misconstrued as deceit or carelessness mistaken for dishonesty.” “From such experiences, I gradually discerned that truth was more than the mere avoidance of lies. It demanded a consistency — a congruence between one’s inner convictions and outward actions. To be truthful, I perceived, was to live in a manner that left little room for doubt or suspicion — not through manipulation, persuasion or self-defence, but through the transparent simplicity of honest living. The agony of being perceived as duplicitous, despite the purity of my intention, became a crucible in which my commitment to truth was refined and strengthened. It became evident to me that it would no longer suffice merely to speak the truth; one had to embody it — to align thought, word and deed so completely that truth itself became visible in every aspect of life.”

	SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16	According to the passage, what effect did the incident have on the author?

Ans	1. It reinforced his commitment to truth and careful conduct.
	2. It motivated him to avoid teachers.
	3. It made him fearful of punishment.
	4. It deepened his interest in physical education.

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage and answer questions that follow. “The incident left an indelible impression upon my mind. I had arrived late for gymnastics owing to a misjudgment of time, yet my explanation was summarily dismissed. The teacher, presuming dishonesty, imposed a fine. It was not the penalty that distressed me, but the imputation of falsehood. I wept — not out of guilt, but out of anguish that my integrity had been questioned in front of my peers. That moment awakened in me a deeper realisation: that one who walks the path of truth must also be vigilant in conduct, lest even innocent negligence be misconstrued as deceit or carelessness mistaken for dishonesty.” “From such experiences, I gradually discerned that truth was more than the mere avoidance of lies. It demanded a consistency — a congruence between one’s inner convictions and outward actions. To be truthful, I perceived, was to live in a manner that left little room for doubt or suspicion — not through manipulation, persuasion or self-defence, but through the transparent simplicity of honest living. The agony of being perceived as duplicitous, despite the purity of my intention, became a crucible in which my commitment to truth was refined and strengthened. It became evident to me that it would no longer suffice merely to speak the truth; one had to embody it — to align thought, word and deed so completely that truth itself became visible in every aspect of life.”

	SubQuestion No : 17
Q.17	Why was the author fined by the teacher?

Ans	1. He arrived late to gymnastics and his explanation was not accepted.
	2. He failed to complete his assignment and threw his book.
	3. He was dishonest about his absence and lied to his teacher.
	4. He skipped school without permission and went for a picnic.

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage and answer questions that follow. “The incident left an indelible impression upon my mind. I had arrived late for gymnastics owing to a misjudgment of time, yet my explanation was summarily dismissed. The teacher, presuming dishonesty, imposed a fine. It was not the penalty that distressed me, but the imputation of falsehood. I wept — not out of guilt, but out of anguish that my integrity had been questioned in front of my peers. That moment awakened in me a deeper realisation: that one who walks the path of truth must also be vigilant in conduct, lest even innocent negligence be misconstrued as deceit or carelessness mistaken for dishonesty.” “From such experiences, I gradually discerned that truth was more than the mere avoidance of lies. It demanded a consistency — a congruence between one’s inner convictions and outward actions. To be truthful, I perceived, was to live in a manner that left little room for doubt or suspicion — not through manipulation, persuasion or self-defence, but through the transparent simplicity of honest living. The agony of being perceived as duplicitous, despite the purity of my intention, became a crucible in which my commitment to truth was refined and strengthened. It became evident to me that it would no longer suffice merely to speak the truth; one had to embody it — to align thought, word and deed so completely that truth itself became visible in every aspect of life.”

	SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18	What can be inferred about the author's understanding of truth after the incident?

Ans	1. He learned that emotions should be hidden.
	2. He avoided telling personal stories thereafter.
	3. He believed truth is only about what is spoken.
	4. He started viewing truth as a complete way of life.

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage and answer questions that follow. “The incident left an indelible impression upon my mind. I had arrived late for gymnastics owing to a misjudgment of time, yet my explanation was summarily dismissed. The teacher, presuming dishonesty, imposed a fine. It was not the penalty that distressed me, but the imputation of falsehood. I wept — not out of guilt, but out of anguish that my integrity had been questioned in front of my peers. That moment awakened in me a deeper realisation: that one who walks the path of truth must also be vigilant in conduct, lest even innocent negligence be misconstrued as deceit or carelessness mistaken for dishonesty.” “From such experiences, I gradually discerned that truth was more than the mere avoidance of lies. It demanded a consistency — a congruence between one’s inner convictions and outward actions. To be truthful, I perceived, was to live in a manner that left little room for doubt or suspicion — not through manipulation, persuasion or self-defence, but through the transparent simplicity of honest living. The agony of being perceived as duplicitous, despite the purity of my intention, became a crucible in which my commitment to truth was refined and strengthened. It became evident to me that it would no longer suffice merely to speak the truth; one had to embody it — to align thought, word and deed so completely that truth itself became visible in every aspect of life.”

	SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19	Select the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘vigilant’ as used in the passage.

Ans	1. Prudent
	2. Unremarkable
	3. Watchful
	4. Distracted

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage and answer questions that follow. “The incident left an indelible impression upon my mind. I had arrived late for gymnastics owing to a misjudgment of time, yet my explanation was summarily dismissed. The teacher, presuming dishonesty, imposed a fine. It was not the penalty that distressed me, but the imputation of falsehood. I wept — not out of guilt, but out of anguish that my integrity had been questioned in front of my peers. That moment awakened in me a deeper realisation: that one who walks the path of truth must also be vigilant in conduct, lest even innocent negligence be misconstrued as deceit or carelessness mistaken for dishonesty.” “From such experiences, I gradually discerned that truth was more than the mere avoidance of lies. It demanded a consistency — a congruence between one’s inner convictions and outward actions. To be truthful, I perceived, was to live in a manner that left little room for doubt or suspicion — not through manipulation, persuasion or self-defence, but through the transparent simplicity of honest living. The agony of being perceived as duplicitous, despite the purity of my intention, became a crucible in which my commitment to truth was refined and strengthened. It became evident to me that it would no longer suffice merely to speak the truth; one had to embody it — to align thought, word and deed so completely that truth itself became visible in every aspect of life.”

	SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20	What is the overall tone of the passage?

Ans	1. Reflective
	2. Sarcastic
	3. Bitter
	4. Cynical

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